The Meaning of World in 1 John 2

 

                                                             

                                                                   1. Introduction: 

There has been much debate about whether Christ's death was particular for the church or in general for all of humanity. Those who hold to the belief that Christ died and provided potential salvation for both elect and non-elect hold to what is called ''Unlimited Atonement.'' Those, on the other hand, who endorse the belief that Christ's salvation was only efficacious for the elect hold to what is called ''Limited Atonement.'' In each camp, there are further different of thoughts concerning Christ's atonement which shall not be covered here. 

In my two previous posts, I feel that I have made a strong case against both the Calvinist view of Romans 9 and the idea that Ephesians 1 somehow proves Calvinism. 

In this post, I wish to provide two solid argument against Calvinism based on my interpretation and exegesis of 1 John 2: 2. While many more verses could be covered that have been historically used on both sides of the debate, it is primarily because of 1 John 2: 2 why I believe in Unlimited Atonement. 

                                                           2. Historical Contexts:

1 John was a general epistle to the church. Unlike Paul's Letter to the Romans, for instance, 1 John was not directed to one church alone. Its audience would have included many churches throughout the Mediterranean World---it was intended for both Jewish and Gentile believers who were now united under the same New Covenant. Much of the book covers evidential signs of a true believer in Christ, though none of those issues shall be addressed here. In general, the author exhorted the church to walk in the light of Christ. While there are different theories concerning the author, it has been historically widely held that the author was John the Apostle. The ESV Study Bible suggests a date for the work at A. D. 90. 

                                       

                                        3. The Debate Concerning ''World'' in Scripture

In what ways does 1 John apply to the doctrine of the atonement? How is it related to the sufficiency of Christ's work on the cross for men's souls? In 1 John 2: 2, the author writes, ''He is the proportion for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world (ESV).'' This brings us to the core of this post: what did John mean by ''world'' in 1 John 2: 2? 

Now, many Calvinists will rightly point to the fact that the meaning of ''world'' or ''whole world'' does not necessarily mean all people in Scripture. When we read in John 12: 19 that the whole world went after Christ, none of us draws to the conclusion that this somehow means every person in the first-century ancient world was actually after Him. Likewise, it is well known among both Calvinists and Arminians that the tax under Augustus Caesar in Luke 2: 1 did not pertain to literally every person on the global earth. ''World'' was often a term in ancient times to describe a certain geography or a great number of people. Thus, those advocating unlimited atonement should not assume that John 3: 16 automatically implies every living creature when these other passages speak of the world less broadly. 

One of the historical arguments made against 1 John 2: 2 being a legitimate support of Unlimited Atonement is the fact that John's letter is to both Jewish and Gentile believers. Thus, those holding to Limited Atonement will claim that the purpose of the letter is not demonstrating that Christ has died for every creature, but rather, Christ's death has been extended even to those outside the Jewish communities and that this is the meaning of ''world'' in 1 John 2:2. 

The claim endorsed by Calvinists that 1: John 2: 2 is actually about the relationship of Jewish and Gentile believers is an interesting one. In many ways, I probably would agree with them to a certain extent. Much of the New Testament does concern the relationship of Jewish and Gentile believers to each other as they find unity in Christ (as is the case in both Romans and Galatians, especially). However, I would argue that there is still more to the text than John only making a point about how Christ has died for those outside of the Jewish community. 

We can debate the meaning of ''world'' in Bible translations all day. But Bible translations are not our final authority. Scripture was not written in early modern seventeenth-century English. The King James Version of the Bible, while a classic of English literature, is theologically inferior to the Greek texts of the Bible from the ancient world. By appealing to the Bible in the Koine Greek manuscripts, the language that most Biblical scholars believe that the New Testament was composed, may help us understand the meaning of the world in 1 John 2: 2. 

                                4. The Meaning of ''World'' in the Greek New Testament

In 1 John 2: 2, the author of the general epistle uses the Greek word κόσμος for the world. This is a different Greek word than Luke used for the world in Luke 2: 1. Perhaps some clarity on the difference in the meaning of these two Greek words will further illuminate all of us in this present discussion. 

As an inspiring New Testament and Early Christian scholar, I find the differences between the world in 1 John 2: 2 and Luke 2: 1 to be truly fascinating. In the former, κόσμος means the entire earth while in the latter, οἰκουμένη was a common Greek word for the Mediterranean world (and the Roman Empire). In other words, Luke had a different meaning to ''world'' when describing the tax in Israel than what John meant by it in the latter's first epistle. When John said κόσμος he clearly meant all of humanity. This is confirmed by the meaning of the Bible in Koine Greek. 

If John meant that Christ's death was not universally for all and that 1 John 2: 2 simply attests to our Lord's death being extended to those outside the Jewish community, I'm not sure why the author never said this. When he wrote ''not for ours only (1 John 2: 2)'', I have not found any reference in John's work to think that he is somehow only describing those purchased by Christ in the Jewish community. Likewise, I see no reason that when he says, ''for the whole world'' that he is somehow speaking only of believers---both Jews and Gentiles. In fact, I have sufficient reasons to think otherwise. First, I have demonstrated that the meaning of the world in this passage means every creature according to Koine Greek. Secondly, however, I wish to provide further contexts within 1 John to demonstrate that the author believed that Christ died at Calvary for all men without exception. 

Even besides the arguments from Greek which I have used previously to justify a reading of 1: John 2: 2 that benefits Unlimited Atonement, the chapter as a whole provides further insight into why Christians may find 1 John the strongest text for Unlimited Atonement in all of Scripture. 

Let me return to one of the Calvinists' interpretations of 1 John 2: 2 that I covered earlier. For many advocates of Limited Atonement, 1 John is not describing Christ's death for all of humanity without exception. They would argue that ''the world'' mentioned in 1 John 2: 2 is actually the elect believers whom Christ died for. But is this what John was saying? 

                                                      5. Further Insight from 1 John 2

Later in the chapter, John mentions ''the world'' again in 1 John 2: 15-17. Interestingly enough, John again uses κόσμος for the world. This was the same Greek word that he used for the world earlier in the passage. Now, while κόσμος has several meanings including world and humanity, none of its definitions are equivalent to meaning a limited few. Furthermore, when John explains that we should not be like the world in 1 John 2: 15-17, to say that world means only the elect at the beginning of 1 John, would also mean that John is telling us to not be like the elect (unless one is being inconsistent in the reading of this passage). Finally, for those who may try to assert that world has a different meaning in the first part of the chapter than in the latter verses, I have already demonstrated that the same Greek word for world is used in both 1 John 2: 2 and 1 John 2: 15-17. 

Having said that, I don't see any evidence of Calvinism in 1 John. On the contrary, I see a chapter that is to me, a major obstacle for those advocating limited atonement. 

                                                         6. Conclusion: 

In short, I think that the Calvinist view of 1 John 2: 2 is in many ways, a forced one to justify their support of Limited Atonement. Perhaps I can be proven otherwise. I have not mentioned other passages of Scripture which I also believe justify Unlimited Atonement, yet this passage alone I believe provides a strong case against Christ's atonement being limited to the church only. For those that disagree, however, hopefully, they will show me the same grace that I have to Calvinists in this post. I have presented my case according to Scripture without demonizing the other side and I'm always interested to hear new perspectives from each side concerning the historic debates over the atonement, free will, predestination, etc.